Hello!
Let a,b be real numbers and f:[a,b]->R a Riemann-integrable function (R
is the set of the real numbers).
Let [A,B] \subset R and f([a,b]) \subset [A,B].
Show that every continuous function g:[A,B]->R, g o f : [a,b]->R is
Riemann-integrable.
( o denotes the composition of the two functions)
How do I show that?
Regards,
Jonas
José Carlos Santos - 09 Feb 2006 12:12 GMT
> Let a,b be real numbers and f:[a,b]->R a Riemann-integrable function (R
> is the set of the real numbers).
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
>
> How do I show that?
If you can use the fact that, for a bounded function, Riemann-integrable
is equivalent to the fact that the set of points of discontinuity has
Lebesgue measure zero, then it's really very easy. Otherwise, it's a bit
more complicated.
Best regards,
Jose Carlos Santos
Jiri Lebl - 09 Feb 2006 16:33 GMT
> Hello!
>
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>
> How do I show that?
Write down precisely what it means for f to be riemann integrable (what
limits must converge), write down what it means for g to be continuous
in delta/epsilon and further write down precisely what it would mean
for "g o f" to be riemann integrable (it will be similar to f, but with
"g o f" instead). If you for example use the upper and lower darbaux
sums, I'm pretty sure the solution will jump up and bite you. I think
it will be very useful to know that g is continuous on a compact
interval so it is uniformly continuous and that will allow you to
wiggle the limits for "f" to look like the limits for "g o f".
Jiri
The World Wide Wade - 09 Feb 2006 20:03 GMT
In article
<1139485555.609888.268180@z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com>,
> Hello!
>
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> Show that every continuous function g:[A,B]->R, g o f : [a,b]->R is
> Riemann-integrable.
Products and sums of RI functions are RI. It follows that g o f
is RI if g is a polynomial. By Weierstrass, every continuous
function on [A,B] is the the uniform limit of polynomials on
[A,B]. Because the uniform limit of RI functions is RI, we're
done. (This proof may do you no good.)
Andrew - 12 Feb 2006 19:36 GMT
Here is a solution:
http://www.math.nus.edu.sg/~matngtb/Calculus/Comp_Riemann/Comp_Riemann.htm
at "Another Proof of Theorem 2"