>> I have the following problem:
>> there are two samples (30 data each one), which don't follow a normal
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>
>First of all, you're never going to be able to make your affirmation.
Absolutely true! At least, not by a "test". Tests show
differences, not similarity.
>All you may be able to say is that you don't have enough data to
>disprove it. Your wording suggests you don't understand this important
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>If you really must use a test, you could start here:
> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kolmogorov-Smirnov_test
"Insufficient evidence to prove a difference" is never
sufficient evidence to prove no-difference.
About the best you do to show no-difference is (say) to use
confidence limits. A CI will show that, all other things being
equal, the expected range of a difference is small.
- Drug treatments to show "equivalence" use relatively
large samples, like, in the hundreds for each group; and they
focuse on a *single* paramater of difference, such as the mean
morbidity rate.
- If you don't even specify the nature of the difference, you
have a tougher problem. The K-S test mentioned above
has the mixed virtue of testing indirectly for variances as
well as for means. It makes more sense to test for means,
as most people are most interested in; or to test for outliers
(suitably extreme scores) in one direction or the other (or,
occasionally, both).

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Rich Ulrich