Math Forum / Mathematics / Mathematical Logic / October 2008

The premise was simple...
Clocks E and M in inertial frames E and M are at rest with respect to
one another. The rate of clock E in frame E (E1) is by definition
equal to the clock rate of M in frame M (M1), or E1=M1.  Let clock M

Is there already an example known of a theorem for which the statement
expressing its independence from ZFC is itself independent from ZFC?

"Some time later Lesniewski told me that
    he had found the required axiom sitting
    on a bench in the Warsaw-Saxon Park."
From page 78 of Lukasiewicz: _Symposium: The Principle of Individuation

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First a definition:
A 'disjunction' "A V B " read as "A or B " is false if both A and B are
false. In all other cases it is true.
The problem that arose with the connective 'and' also arises with a

PROPOSAL
Statements can play no substantive role in logic. The logical statement
is an oxymoron, entailing the inappropriate physical positioning of
meaning.

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Fact A: I cannot post there. Fact B: Really bad cranks can post there.
Fact C: Nobody is answering my questions.
What does this imply?

There CANNOT be a distinction between 'and' and 'or' in logic.
Why? Because, as it stands, logic has not given the element that arises
from a conjunction or disjunction of 2 elements.

Some fragments of FOL are decidable.  Is this question
      Which fragments of FOL are decidable?
decidable?  I expect not.

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"And" (also called a conjunction, "^") is employed in logic. For
example, the conjunction p and q, (p ^ q) of two propositions is true
when both p and q are true, false otherwise. It would be tedious to even
begin to think otherwise. But Tedium is the name of the dragon who